Panniculitis: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Panniculitis

Sample item

A 25-year-old woman has tender, warm, red nodules over both shins and low-grade fever two weeks after a sore throat. A biopsy of a nodule would most typically show:

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Septal panniculitis without vasculitis

Erythema nodosum is the commonest panniculitis and is a hypersensitivity reaction. Triggers include streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, drugs, pregnancy and inflammatory bowel disease. The histology is a septal panniculitis without vasculitis.

Option by option

  • A. A subepidermal blister with eosinophils

    A subepidermal blister with eosinophils describes bullous pemphigoid.

  • B. Septal panniculitis without vasculitis (correct)

    Correct. Inflammation of the fat septa without vessel wall necrosis defines erythema nodosum.

  • C. Leukocytoclastic vasculitis of superficial dermal venules

    Leukocytoclastic vasculitis of superficial venules describes cutaneous small vessel vasculitis, which gives palpable purpura.

  • D. Predominantly lobular panniculitis with fat necrosis

    A predominantly lobular pattern with fat necrosis is seen in other panniculitides, such as pancreatic panniculitis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is B, Septal panniculitis without vasculitis. Erythema nodosum is the commonest panniculitis and is a hypersensitivity reaction.

Why is "A subepidermal blister with eosinophils" not the answer?

A subepidermal blister with eosinophils describes bullous pemphigoid.

Why is "Leukocytoclastic vasculitis of superficial dermal venules" not the answer?

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis of superficial venules describes cutaneous small vessel vasculitis, which gives palpable purpura.

Why is "Predominantly lobular panniculitis with fat necrosis" not the answer?

A predominantly lobular pattern with fat necrosis is seen in other panniculitides, such as pancreatic panniculitis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Panniculitis in Dermatology. Triggers include streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, drugs, pregnancy and inflammatory bowel disease. The histology is a septal panniculitis without vasculitis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Panniculitis?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.